Glossary entry (derived from question below)
English term
Clem.
4 +1 | Clement of Rome | Charles Davis |
4 +1 | First Epistle of Clement | Aleksandra Kleschina |
4 | Clementine literature | Jack Doughty |
Oct 16, 2014 09:04: Charles Davis Created KOG entry
Non-PRO (1): Yvonne Gallagher
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Responses
Clement of Rome
Clementine literature is Christian romance with Clement as the protagonist.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pope_Clement_I
http://carm.org/first-epistle-clement-corinthians
http://taarcheia.wordpress.com/2012/12/18/what-is-christolog...
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Note added at 1 hr (2014-10-09 14:49:20 GMT)
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As a matter of fact, the bit that comes after "Clem." in your text, "I Cor. xl, 1", is actually part of the same reference. It looks as though it refers to Paul's First Epistle to Corinthians, chapter 40, verse 1, from the New Testament, but it can't, because Paul's 1 Corinthians only has 16 chapters. Clement's two epistles (the genuine one and the one traditionally attributed to him) are called "First Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians" and "Second Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians". This reference, "Clem., I Cor. xl, 1", means Clement, 1st Epistle to the Corinthians, chapter 40, verse 1". And here it is:
"1 Clem. 40:1 Forasmuch then as these things are manifest beforehand, and we have searched into the depths of the Divine knowledge, we ought to do all things in order, as many as the Master hath commanded us to perform at their appointed seasons."
http://carm.org/first-epistle-clement-corinthians
So Aleksandra is right that the reference is to 1 Clement, but the "Clem." part simply means "Clement".
First Epistle of Clement
I think it's much more likely that the First Epistle of Clement ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Epistle_of_Clement ) is being referred to here, all the more so since It makes distinct reference to Paul's First Epistle to the Corinthians, which is also referenced here. Last quote is from http://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionary/clement/ .
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Charles Davis
: You're right that it's the 1st Epistle, but Clem. simply stands for Clement and the ref. to the 1st Epistle is what follows. See my added note. // You're quite right, but the 2nd is still cited as Clem(ent); see e.g. http://tinyurl.com/q4653rj
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Thank you! Yeah, I didn't notice that... I wrote that "Clem." stands specifically for the First Epistle because the Second Epistle is generally deemed to be (1) spurious and (2) rather later than the First. // You are absolutely right.
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