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Glossary entry

English term or phrase:

one year post-menopausal

English answer:

had no periods for 12 months (after amenorrhea/menopause)

Added to glossary by Yvonne Gallagher
Aug 10, 2013 16:43
10 yrs ago
4 viewers *
English term

one year post-menopausal

English Medical Medical: Pharmaceuticals
If in patient facing clinical trial documentation it is said that the woman should be "one year post-menopausal", does that mean that she must not have had her periods for 12 months or for 24 months? In other words, is "one year post-menopausal" simply a more elaborate (possibly explanatory) way of saying "officially post-menopausal" (i.e. 12 months), or does it realy mean "having been post-monopausal for one year", i.e. officially post-menopausal plus one year (i.e. 24 months)?
Responses
4 had no periods for 12 months
4 +4 having been post-monopausal for one year
Change log

Aug 15, 2013 09:16: Yvonne Gallagher Created KOG entry

Discussion

Michael Barnett Aug 11, 2013:
Menopause I agree with Tina. Menopause begins 1 day after the last period.
We can confirm this in less than 1 year by measuring the FSH (follicle stimulating hormone).
Tina Vonhof (X) Aug 11, 2013:
Menopause = the end of menstruation. One year post-menopausal is 12 months after the last menstrual period.
Shivaun Conroy Aug 11, 2013:
The Wikipaedia entry seems to suggest 12 months after her period. 'Thus postmenopause is all of the time in a woman's life that take place after her last period.' It seems that within this time period she cannot be diagnosed as postmenopausal, but retrospectively one could say that she had been post-menopausal in that time.
Lirka Aug 10, 2013:
it's confusing, your thinking is along the right lines, Samuel.

If I had to guess ( an educated guess), I'd say 1 year after official menopause.

But to be sure, ask the client or write a translator's note. That's what I usually do.
Samuel Murray (asker) Aug 10, 2013:
Okay, but what you say to the information in the Wikipedia article that (a) the terms "menopause" and "post-menopause" are often used interchangeably and (b) the date of post-menopause is stated retrospectively (i.e. the date of the post-menopause is not 366 days after the last period but 1 day after the last period)? I must say that I had missed that part of the Wikipedia article initially.
Judith Hehir Aug 10, 2013:
Samuel, Without further context, I would take this to mean that the time period in question is 2 years. GYNs in the US are emphatic about menopause being legit or official only after menstruation has ceased for a full 12 months.

Responses

5 mins
Selected

had no periods for 12 months

imo

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Note added at 6 mins (2013-08-10 16:49:40 GMT)
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the menopause is when the periods stop so post-menopausal =after one year of periods stopping

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Note added at 6 mins (2013-08-10 16:50:05 GMT)
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or, free of periods for one year

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Note added at 7 mins (2013-08-10 16:51:08 GMT)
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http://www.womentowomen.com/menopause/postmenopausal.aspx

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Note added at 1 hr (2013-08-10 18:31:44 GMT)
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Samuel, I take it as one year after periods stop (menopause). I don't really see where you are getting the idea it's 24 months?

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Note added at 1 hr (2013-08-10 18:35:49 GMT)
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oops, sorry about that, yes, I do see where you are coming from...

So, "post-menopausal"=12 months free of periods
so "one year post-menopausal" WOULD BE 24 months. Sorry, I wasn't reading it right...

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Note added at 2 hrs (2013-08-10 18:44:41 GMT)
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although here it seems it's 12 months, so it is quite confusing terminology. Do you have any other way of checking amount of time?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Menopause

The term postmenopause is applied to women who have not experienced a menstrual bleed for a minimum of 12 months, assuming that they do still have a uterus, and are not pregnant or lactating.[5] In women without a uterus, menopause or postmenopause is identified by a very high FSH level. Thus postmenopause is all of the time in a woman's life that take place after her last period, or more accurately, all of the time that follows the point when her ovaries become inactive.
A woman who still has her uterus (and who is neither pregnant nor lactating) can be declared to be in postmenopause once she has gone 12 full months with no flow at all, not even any spotting.[5] When she reaches that point, she is one year into postmenopause.

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Note added at 2 hrs (2013-08-10 19:01:38 GMT)
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I go back to thinking it's 12 months from amenorrhea

http://www.patient.co.uk/doctor/Post-Menopausal-Bleeding.htm

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Note added at 2 hrs (2013-08-10 19:03:15 GMT)
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Postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) is vaginal bleeding occurring after twelve months of amenorrhoea, in a woman of the age where the menopause can be expected. Hence it does not apply to a young woman, who has had amenorrhoea from anorexia nervosa, or a pregnancy followed by lactation. However, it can apply to younger women following premature ovarian failure or premature menopause.

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Note added at 4 days (2013-08-15 09:14:03 GMT) Post-grading
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glad to have helped. This was my first instinct (note at 6 mins) but the Wiki article was a bit confusing but it is 12 months after amenorrhoea in a woman of the age for menopause.
This tallies with my personal experience. When my periods stopped I was told I would be officially post menopause if I had no period for 1 year. Which means you are post-menopausal from one day after your last period, but only officially labelled as such ONE YEAR LATER =1 year post menopause. It's this aspect of hindsight that momentarily caused a bit of confusion.
Note from asker:
So, if a woman say "I've been post-menopausal for one year", does that mean that it has been one year or two years since her last period?
Peer comment(s):
neutral writeaway : imo not a great solution. this could refer to a young woman with a medical disorder.
30 mins
I think it's pretty clear it's not about young women when we are talking of the menopause
disagree Michael Barnett : Agree with writeaway//It doesn't matter what age the woman is. There are many things that could cause a menstrual period to stop for 12 or more months other than menopause.
1 hr
I think it's pretty clear it's not about young women when we are talking of the menopause or amenorrhea//Samuel's question is really about whether it's 12 0r 24 months
agree Shivaun Conroy
7 hrs
many thanks Shivaun!
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4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer.
+4
4 mins

having been post-monopausal for one year

I think it means she's been p.-m. for one year (12 mos)

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Note added at 1 hr (2013-08-10 18:42:37 GMT)
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@Samuel - No, I think it means 12 mos after her last period.
Note from asker:
So, if I understand your answer correctly, you say that it means "24 months after the last period", is that correct?
Peer comment(s):
agree Vesna Maširević : Agree and I interpret it as "officially post-menopausal plus one year" and not "24 months after the last period"
33 mins
agree Michael Barnett : 12 months after the last period.
12 hrs
agree Phong Le
1 day 10 hrs
agree Anna Herbst : You will know that the menopause has taken place if you have not had any bleeding for 12 months. http://www.betterhealth.vic.gov.au/bhcv2/bhcarticles.nsf/pag...
1 day 13 hrs
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